Are spastic muscles a response of the ii of the body to “splint” the spine or are they an effect in the sense of a malfunction of the muscular sysytem caused by the subluxation or by something else or both? If they are the result of any of the above, how can we know which? Further, if we cannot know, how can we justify doing something to treat them, something other than correct any vertebral subluxations, which we would do anyhow?
I don’t know, we can’t know, there is no justification, and you’re right again Joe. Once we leave the neuroskeletal system we are out of our field.
Muscle “behavior” can be a window into there ii may need the application of external force, and a such, can be a component of analyzing the spine for subluxation. But you are quite correct. We do not “treat” the muscles.